AIPGE Question Paper 2008 interview-questions

AIPGMEE 2008 Multiple choice questions MCQs
AIPGE 2008 - Questions with Answers Psychiatry : 1. Dementia precox was term by..

a. Freud
b. Bleuler
c. Krepaelin - Ans
d. Schnider
Ans: c

2. male with headache, low mood, lethargy with a child with leukemia, hopeful about remission…

a. depression
b. psychoigenic headache
c. adjustment disorder
d.
Ans: c.

3. male with symptoms mimicking heart disease with normal ECG & X-ray

a. angina pectoris
b. panic attack
c.
d.
Ans: B.

4. PTSD all seen except

a. hallucinations
b. hyperarousal
c. numbness of emotions
d. flashbacks
Ans: a.

5. 1st investigations for erectile dysfunction?

a. sildenafil citrate test
b. cavernosometry
c. doppler (?)
d.

6. not used in anxiety

a. risperidone
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.
Radiology
7. best view for c1-c2

a. AP
b. odontoid
c. oblique
d. lateral
Ans: b.

8. rib notching is seen in

a. coarctation of aorta
b. marfan’s
c.
d.
Ans: a.

9. most sensitive phase to radiotherapy

a. G2M
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

10. Best for GFR measurement

a. DTPA
b. DMSA
c.
d.
Ans; a.

11. Fraying of anterior ends of ribs

a. scurvy
b. rickets
c.
d.
Ans: b.

12. not seen in Tb

a. a. pulled up caucum
b. apple core appearance
c.
d.
Ans: B.

13. specific for aortitis

a. calcification of ascending aorta
b. calcification of descending aorta
c.
d.

14. photoelectric effect

a. interacts with electron in outermost orbit
b. interacts with bound electrons
c. does not interact
d.
Ans: a.

15. earliest sign in pulmonary venous hypertension

a. pleural effusion
b. cephalization of veins
c. Kerly B lines
Ans; b.

16. 1st sign of LA enlargement

a. posterior displacement of esophagus
b. widening of carinal angle
c. upper displacement of left bronchus
d. double contour of right border

17. contrat allergy asso with?

a. anaphylactoid reactions
b. IgE mediated reactions
c.
d.
Ans: a.

Anaesthesia
18. train of four asso with…

a. mechanical ventilation
b. nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
c.
d.
Ans: b.

19. propofol not true is …

a. contraindicated in porphyria
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

20. flase about fluranes is…

a. sevoflurane is less cardiodepressant than isopfulrane
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

21. flumazenil is…

a. reverse agonist
b. antagonist
c. partial agonist
d.
Ans: b.
skin…
22. male with patchy loss of scalp hair, eyebrows & beard with grey hair…

a. alopecia aereata
b. anagen effluvium
c. telogen effluvium
d. anrogenic alopecia
Ans: a.

23. DOC for pregnant woman in 2nd trimister with pustular psoriasis

a. prednisolone
b. dapsone
c. acitretin
d. methotrexate

24. female with oral lesions…

a. pemphigus vulgaris
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.
25. what is not true about syphilis?

I don’t remember the options exactly…

26. DOC for tertiary syphilis

a. procaine penicillin
b. benzathine penicilline
c.
d.
Ans; b.

27. Dharmendra index && jopling’s calssification for…

a.Tb
b. leprosy
Ans: b.

28. DOC for lepra II rections..

a. thalidomide
b. corticosteroids
c. clofazimine
d.
Ans; a.
orthopaedics
29. Pollicisation…

a. reconstruction of thumb
b. shortening of finger
c.
d.
Ans; a.

30. best test for acute knee injury

a. Lachman’s test
b. McMurrey’s test
c. Apley’s test
d.
Ans; a.
31. Coronary ligament is…

a. b/w menisci at anterior ends
b. b/w menisci at posterior ends
c. b/w menisci & tibial condyle
d. b/w menisci & femoral condyle
Ans; c.

32. repair is better than removal in meniscal injury…

a. outer injury
b. middle
c. inner
d. at junction with cruciate ligaments

33. knee locking in standing position is…

a. internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
b. internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
c. external rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
d. external rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
Ans; a.

34. patient with HIV on protease inhibitor with limitation of abduction & internal rotation of hip…

a. osteonecrosis of hip
b.
c.
d.

35. false about myositis ossificans progressiva (child with heterotopic ossifications….)

a. pneumonia is common
b. life longetivity is normal
c.
d.
Ans: b.

36. most common site for autologs BG…

a. iliac crest
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

37. false about charcot’s joint in diabetic…

a. limitation of movements with bracing
b. arthrodesis
c. total ankle replacement
d. arthrocentesis

38. false about TB osteomyelitis

a. aundant periosteal reaction
b. sequestrum seen
c. signs of inflammation are less common
d.
Ans: a.
pediatrics…
39. lowest recurrence in bed wetting..

a. bed alarms
b. desmopressine
c. imipramine
d.
Ans: a.

40. repeat Q - neonatal alveolar proteinosis

41. repeat Q - investigation for 2 days child with no passage of meconium.. barium enema

42. repeat Q - neonate with congenital diaphragmatic hernia with distress.. nasogastric aspiration (according to speed solution - confirm presence of ET)

43. repeat Q - bronchiolitis obliterans

44. child with meconuria & absent anus

a. anoplasty
b. transverse colostomy
c. sigmoid colostomy
Ans: c.

45. child with distended abdomen with gas under diaphragm..

a. perforation of stomach
b. necrotising enterocolitis/pneumatosis cystosis intestinalis
c.
d.
Ans: b.

46. right sided aortic arch a/w..

a. TOF
b. corrected TGA (it was not uncorrected TGA where it is seen)
c.
d.
Ans; A.

47. False about PDA

a. 2-3 times commoner in males ( female:male 2:1)
b. ligation is surgery
c. more in immature infants (not remember exactly)
d.
Ans; a.

48. CNS damage in which congenital intrauterine infection?

a. rubella & CMV
b. rubella & toxoplasmosis
c. CMV & toxoplasmosis

49. MC seizure.. repeat Q

a. subtle
Ans; a.

50. false about cerebellar astrocytoma…

a. low grade more common in children
b. commonly infratentorial
c. seen more commonly in 1st 2 decades
d. (answer?)

51. 6 yr child with recurrent gross hematuria for 2 yrsa. IgA nephropathy
b. wilm’s
c.
d.

52. MCC of developmental delay… repeat Q - constitutional

53. not included in IMNCI

a. malaria
b. neonatal tetanus
c. otitis media

54. coarctatoin of aorta a/w - repeat Q - bicuspid aortic valve

55. Rx of perforated necrotizing colitis..

a. conservative
b. excision of segment with anastomosis
c.
d.
Ans; b.

56. Gomez classification false is..

a. based on height
b. 50% Boston standards
c.
d.

Obs & Gyn..
57. not a cause of recurrent abortion.. repeat Q - TORCH

58. DOC for sever HT in preeclampsia

a. labetalol
b. methyldopa
c.
d.
Ans; a.

59. Investigation for endosalpingitis..

a. leproscopy
b. hysteroscopy
c.
d.
Ans; a.

60. 1st sign of puberty in girls - repeat Q - thelarche

61. virus asso with Ca cervix..

a. HPV
b. HIV
c.
d.
Ans; a.

62. false about Ca cervix..

a. common at squamocolumnar junction.
b. CT is the investigation of staging
c.
d.
Ans; b.

63. Rx of 55 yr female with simple hyperplasia endometrium with atypia..

a. hysterectomy
b. MPA
c. LNG IUCD
d.

64. All seen in antiphospholipid antibody except..

a. pancytopenia
b. venous thrombosis
c. recurrent abortions
d. pulmonary hypertension
Ans: d.

65. Contraindication of vaginal delivery after C/S..

a. classical C/S
b. no h/o vaginal delivery
c. breech
d.
Ans; a.

66. all form from mullerian duct except..

a. ovary
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d.
Ans; a.

67. All true about androgen insensitivity syndrome except..

a. XY genotype
b. pubic hair abundant
c.
d.
Ans; b.

68. Heparin in pregnancy supplemented with..

a. Ca
b. Zn
c. Cu
d.
Ans; a.

69. Drugs in PPH except..

a. misoprostol
b. syntocinon
c. syntometrin
d. mifepristone
Ans; d.

70. M/A for clomipohene citrate..

a. removes FEEDBACK by estrogen at hypothalamus
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

71. All are tocolytics except..

a. ritodrine
b. salbutamol
c. may be the answer
d. or may be this!!!

72. MCC of placenta accreta..

a. C/S
b. curettage
c. placenta previa
d.

73. not diagnosed by chorionic villous biopsy..

a. NTD
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

74. MC reversal of TL with..

a. isthmo-isthmic anastomosis
b. isthmo-ampullary anastomosis
c. cornual obstruction
d.
Ans: a.

75. Least falilure with..

a. fallope ring
b. bipolar cautery
c. unipolar cautery
d.
Ans; a.

76. Active management of labout a/e..

a. unterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
b. immediate cuting & ligation of cord
c. massage of fundus
d. controlled cord traction

77. Induction at term not done in..

a. preecplampsia
b. DM
c. heart disease
d.
Ans: c.

78. true about umbilical artery doppler..

a. decrese S/D ration in mothers taking nicotine

79. mother with previous child with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.. anyone remembers the exact question?

80. calender method.. please help…

81. true about lactation mastitis..

a.can lead to abscess & I & D may be required
b. E.coli most common organism
c. infection from GIT of neonate
d.

82. Woman with Bartholin’s cyst.. treatment..

a. marsupialization
b.
c.
d.

Surgery..
83. investigation for nutcracker esophagus..

a. barometry
b. barium swallow
c.
d.
Ans; a.

84. male with blunt injury to abdomen hypotensive responding to in fluids, mild tenderness in epigastrium

a. observation
b. further imaging of upper abdomen
c.
d.
Ans: b.

85. not a landmark for facial nerve - parotid surfery

a. digastric
b. omohyoid
c. retrograde from facial nerve
d.

86. 45 yr female with gall stone 1.5 cm solitary ..

a. cholecystectomy oinly if she develops biliary colic
b. lap cholecystectomy immediately
c. lap cholecystectomy even if she is asymptomatic after 2 months
d. open cholecystectomy even if she is asymptomatic after 2 months
Ans; a.

87. not done in torsion of testis - repeat Q - antibiotics & analgesics

88. hepatic resection.. which Couinods segments.. don’t remember exactly

89. splenectomy in ITP, platelet infusion given at..

a. immediately after ligating splenic vein
b. immediately after removal of spleen
c. after incision
d.

90. ureter stone pain d/t..

a. intramural irritation
b. renal capsular tension d/t back pressure
c. exaggerated peristalsis
d.

91. epispadias a/w..

a. separation of pubic symphysis
b.
c.
d.
Ans:a

92. 40 yr male with dilated esophagus on barium, non-progressive dysphaigia for liquid & solids..

a. achalasia cardia
b.cancer at cardia
c. ca oesophagus
d.

93. MC thyroid carcinoma..

a. papillary
b. follicular
c. anaplastic
d. lymphoma
Ans : a.

94. 25 yr female with blood from single duct in brest..

a. microdocectomy
b. MRM
c.
d.

95. diffuse axonal injury most common at..

a. junction of grey & white matter
b.
c.
d.

96. best method for urine collection - repeat Q - suprapubic aspiration

97. all helpful to d/d cystitis & chronic pyelonephritis except..

a. bacterial ct > 10 8
b. loss of concentrating ability
c. WBC casts
d.
Ans: a.

98. TRUS in prostate most useful for..

a. guided biopsy
b.
c.
d.

99. alcoholic with stones in pancreas..

a. lateral pncreatojejunostomy
b. excision of pancreas
c. d.

100. male with injury to lower CBD ends, duodenum & head of pancreas.. treatment is..

a. Whipple’s operation
b. roux-en-y anastomosis
c.
d.

101. not a complication of hemithyroidectomy..a. wound hematoma
b. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
c. external branch of superior laryngeal nerve palsy
d. hypocalcemia
Ans : d.

102. most preferred route for acute pancreatitis..

a. parenteral
b. gastrostomy
c. jejnostomy
d.
Ans : a.

103. male with crypt abscess & crypt ulcers.. diagnosis..

a. Crohn’s
b. ulcerative colitis
c.
d.

104. definition of penetrating neck trauma..

a. disruption of platysme
b. 2 cm deep
c.
d.
Ans : b.

105. false about vovulus is..

a. sigmoid is more common
b. sigmoidoscopy is contraindicated
c. h/o pain releived by passage of flatus
d.
Ans : b.

106. Abbey flap for..

a. lip
b. tongue
c.
d.
Ans : a.

107. MC posterior mediastinal tumour..

a. teratoma
b. neurofiboma
c. lymphoma
d.

108. there was other Q on mediastinal lesion.. as far as I remember, answer was neuroenteric cyst.. please help..

109. best guide to operate in blunt thorax trauma

a. thoracostomy tube output
b. symptoms
c.
d.

110. there was a Q on management of acute cholecystitis.. please help..

111. Nigro regimen..

a. CT & RT as alternate to surgery
b.
c.
d.

112. Anal fissure best diagnosed by..

a. anoscopy
b. history & visual examination
c.
d.

medicine
113. not true about congenital adrenal hyperplasia

a. 21 hydroxylase defi is the most common cause
b. females present with ambiguous genitalia
c. males present with precoucious puberty
d. hypokalemic alkalosis seen
Ans : a.

114. DOC for CML..

a. imatinib
b.
c.
d.
Ans :a.

115. MC pancreatic tumour in MEN 1..

a. gastrinoma
b. insulinoma
c. glucagonoma
d.
Ans : a.

116. best investigation for intersitial lung disease..

a. HRCT
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

117. investigation for 20 yr female with mild jaundice with spherocytes.. repeat Q - Coomb’s test

118. Pick bodies formed of..

a. tau
b. ubiquitin
c. alpha-synnuclein
d. beta synnuclein
Ans ; a.

119. dying back neuropathy..

a. arsenic
b. GBS
c. DM
d. porphyria

120. true about extramedullary tumour a/e..

a. can lead to Brown-Sequard syndrome
b.
c.
d.

121. poorest prognosis in AML..

a. monosomy 7
b. no cytogenentic abnormality
c. t (15;17)
d.
Ans ; a.

122. cellular BM with pancytopenia a/e - repeat Q - dyserythropoietic anemia

123. All transretinoic acid for - repeat Q - acute promyelovytic anemia

124. which type of hypertriglyceridemia.. VLDL & chylomicron remnants..

a. I
b. IIa
c. IIb
d. III
Ans : d.

125. male with sudden death at basketball found hypertrophied septum.. repeat Q - HOCM

126. Conn’s syndrome mostly d/t..

a. adrenal hyperplasia
b. adrenal carcinoma
c. adrenal adenoma
d.
Ans : c.

127. Megaloblastic anemia should be treated with folic acid & vit B12 because..

a. folic acid alone causes improvement of symptom but worsening of neurolifical symptoms
b.
c.
d.

128. there was a Q on Cushing’s syndrome.. can anyone help?

129. Causative for rheumatoid arthritis..

a. mycoplasma
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

If EBV was amongst the options, it would be the preferred answer..

130. causative of Crohn’s disease…

a. mycobacterium paraTb
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

131. Ttrue about Kawasaki’s disease..

a. 25% have coronary artery aneurysm
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

132. All true about conus syndrome except..

a. saddle anesthesia
b. flexor planter reflex
c. absent knee & ankle jerks
d.
Ans : c.

133. HBs positive HBe negative asymptomatic male.. repeat Q - observation

Ophthalmology
134. Sarcoidosis associated with..

a. band keratopathy
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

135. PHPV asso with..

a. Patau syndrome
b. Down
c.
d.
Ans : a.

136. NF-1 asso with

a. choroidal hemangioma
b. glaucoma - reference - khurana
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

137. Intractable glaucoma a/w..

a. multiple melanomas on anterior iris
b. proliferation of epithelium on anterior iris
c. proliferation of pigmented epithelium on posterior iris
d. swollen lens

138. Osteosarcoma in retinoblastoma d/t a/e..

a. RT
b. CT
c. mutation in p53
d. mutation in Rb

139. MIP 26 in lens - function..

a. water transport
b. proteoglycan assembly
c.
d.

140. not seen in photoreceptor matrix..

a. metalloproteinase
b.
c.
d.

141. final centre for horizontal movements of eye..

a. abducent nucleus
b. trochlear nucleus
c. oculomotor nucleus
d. vestibular nucleus

142. MCC of ocular morbidity in india..

a. refractive errors
b. cataract
c.
d.
Ans : a.

ENT
143. male with dull TM, deafness & tinnitus, type B curve & neck mass..

a. Ca nasopharynx
b. Ca middle ear
c. Tb
d.
Ans : a.

144. Nasal septum not contributed by..

a. lacrimal
b. sphenoid
c. ethmoid
d. palatine
Ans: a.

145. loss of sensation in external auditory canal.. Histelberger sign..

a. Bell’s palsy
b. acoustic neuroma
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

146. true about allergic fungal sinusitis a/e

a. CT shows hyperdense
b. orbital penetration
c. type 1 hypersensitivity
d.

147. singer woman with singer’s nodes with h/o reflux..

a. voice therapy & PPI
b. laryngomicroscopic excision
c.
d.

148. Cochlear implant placed at..

remember it was not hearing aid, itr was cochlear implant

a. horizontal semicircular canal
b. round window
c. oval window
d.

149. age for bilateral external canal atresia with microtia..

a. < 1 yr
b. 5 yrs
c. puberty
d.

SPM
150. MCC of maternal mortality in India..

a. haemorrhage
b. anemia
c. sepsis
d.
Ans : a.

151. definition of low visiona. best corrected 6/60 to 3/60
b. best corrected 6/60 to 6/18
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

152. nutritional surveillance.. please help..

153. among the following false is..

a. health is central responsibility
b. Alma-ata declaration
c. intelligence regulation act
d.

154. psychrometer used for..

a. air velocity
b. humidity
c. radiant heat
d.
Ans : b.

155. transmitted by soft tick

a. KFD
b. relapsing fever
c. tick typhus
d.
Ans : b.

156. demarcation line in iceberg disease

a. symptomatic & asymptomatic
b. diagnosed & undiagnosed
c. apparent & unapperent
d.

157. Isolation not useful for all except..

a. mumps
b. measles
c. hepatitis A
d. pneumonic plague

158. false about live vaccine is..

a. single dose gives lifelong immunity
b. two live vaccines can’t be given together (remember MMR)
c.
d.
Ans: b.

159. vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is..

a. MMR
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

160. ferrugenous bodies in..

a. asbestosis
b. silicosis
c.
d.
Ans ; a.

161. standard deviation is for..

a. chance varience
b. dispersion
c.
d.

162. KAP studies started after..

a. HIV
b. cancer
c.
d.

163. MC occupational cancer..

a. skin
b. bladder
c. lung
d.
ans ; a.

164. not transmitted by soil..

a. brucellosis
b. coccidiodomycosis
c. tetanus
d.
Ans ; a.

165. all important for noncommunicable disease except..

a. dose response relation
b. specificity of asso
c. strength of asso
d. temporal asso
Ans ; a.

166. current list does not include

a. vital stats
b. medical education
c. prevention of spread of communicable disease
d.

167. all zoonosis except..

a. AIDS
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

168. CHC is

a. 1st referral
b 2nd referral
c. 3rd referral
d.
Ans; a.

169. complete family size..

a. total fertility rate
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

170. equal interview time eliminates..

a. Berksonian bias
b. recall bias
c. selection bias
d. interviewer bias

171. Delphi’s method for?

Forensic
172. diphtheria like colitis in ascending & trnasverse colon caused by..

a. lead
b. aarsenic
c.
d.

173. abortion sticks - mechanism - repeat Q - stimulation of uterine contraction

174. male from West Bengal with hyperkeratosis, transverse nail lines..

a. chronic arsenic poisoning
b.
c.
d.
Ans : A.

175. suffocation a/e..

a. choking
b. throttling
c. gagging
d. smothering
Ans: b.

176. polychlorinated hydrocarbon is..

a. parathiuon
b. malathion
c. diazinon
d. dieldrin/eldrin
Ans : d.

177. alkanization of urine..

a. barbiturates
b. amphetamina
c. alcohol
d.
Ans; a.

178. Corporo basal index for..

a. race
b. sex
c. age
d.
Ans : b.

179. false negative hydrostatic test in live born..

a. atelectasis
b. meconium aspiration
c. emphysema
d.

180. fatty liver cased by..

a. arsenic
b. aconite
c.
d.
Ans ; a.

181. test for vaginal cells collected for investigation for rape..

a. Lugol’s iodine
b.
c.
d.

Pharmacology
182. all used for bladder spasm post-op except..

a. oxybutynin
b. ipratropium
c.
d.
Ans : b.

183. DOC for diphtheria..

a. erythromycin
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

184. tiotropium used for a/e..

a. urinary retention
b.
c.
d.
ans : a.

185. M/A for paclitaxel..

a. topoisomerase inhibitor
b. polymerization of tubules
c.
d.
Ans : b.

186. M/A of pralidoxime - repeat Q - reactivation of cholinesterase

187. Antipseudomonal penicillin is..

a. piperacillin
b. amoxycillin
c. ampicillin
d.
Ans : a.

188. immunomodulator for genital warts is..

a. imiquimod
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

189. not an antifungal…

a. caspofungin
b. undecyclinic acid
c. ciclopirox
d. clofasimine
Ans ; d.

190. which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis.

a. doxycycline
b. cefotetan
c.
d.
Ans : a.

191. all cause discolouration of urine except..

a. rifampin
b. quinine
c.
d.
Ans : b.

192. nephrotoxic drug is.

a. streptomycin
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

193. phase II trials for

a. maxximal tolerated dose
b. efficacy
c. lethal dose
d.
Ans : b.

194. DOC for SVT

a. verapamil
b. diltiazem
c.
d.
Ans : a.

195. false about erythropoietin..

a. decrease reticulocyte count
b. hypertension
c. decrease transfusion requirement
d.
Ans: a.

196. poplypeptide with antitumour activity

a. bleomycine
b. aspartame
c.
d.
Ans : a.

197. therapeutic index for - repeat Q - safety

198. detoxification of drugs all except..

a. cytochrome oxidase
b. cytochrome p 450
c. methylation
d.
Ans : a.

199. probiotics useful for..

a. necrotizing enterocolitis
ans : a.

200. all gause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency except..

a. CQ
b. quinine
c. primaquine
d. pyrimethamine
Ans : d.

201. Torsades de pointes caused by..a. quinidine
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.202. leucovorin used with..

a. methotrexate
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

203. Tacrolimus does not cause..

a. hirsuitism (reef - KDT)
b. nephrotoxicity
c. neurotoxicity
d. DM
Ans : a.

204. there was a Q on Rx of resistant falciperum malaria in child.. don’t remember exactly.. please help..

Microbiology
205. false about v cholerae O 139 - repeat Q - expresses O1

206. false abt yaws..

a. by t. pertenue
b. sexually transmitted
c.
d.
Ans : b.

207. pneumocystic jiroveki.. don’t remember the questions exactly.. help..

208. prion is ..

a. infectious
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

209. cross reaction with synovial fluid - which streptococcal antigen?

a. carbohydrate
b. capsular hyaluronic acid
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

210. H5N1 is..

a. bird flu
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

211. does not cause biliary obstruction..

a. ascaris
b. ankylostoma
c. & d. - liver flukes
Ans : b.

212. false about gram positive cocci..

a. most enterococci are sensitive to penicillin
b. staph saprophytics causes UTI in females
c.
d.
Ans : a.

213. all cause meningitis in elderly except..

a. HSV 2
b. GNB
c. pneumococci
d. listeria
Ans : c.

(I went for HSV 2 but surprised to see HSV a common cause of viral meningitis in Harri.. now not sure abt ans)

214. most resistant to antisetics..

a. cyst
b. spores
c. prions
d. fungi
Ans : c.

215. not true about measles.. don’t remember options.. help..

patho
216. haemodialysis asso amyloidosis - beta-2 microglobulin

217. cold haem,aglutinin is asso with..

a. anti IgM
b. anti IgG
c. anti IgA
d. Donath Landsteiner Ab
Ans : d.

218. Whipple disease - Pathology

a. infiltration of histiocytes in lamina propria
b. granuloma in lamina propria
c.
d.

219. mutation for congenital nephrotic syn

a. nephrin
b. podocin
c. alpha 4 actinin
d.
Ans : a.

220. false abt p53..

a. arrests cel cycle at G1
b. 53 kD protein
c. wild type a/w tumours
d.

221. markers for Hodgkin’s disease.

a. CD 15 & 30
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

222. repeat Q of genomic imprinting

223. factor which causes cross linking & stabilization of clot..

a. factor XIII
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

224. cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma..

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