IMP interview questions 2007 ICSE Board History civics geography question paper

xHistory, Civics and Geography (ICSE)
Questions:

-Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
-You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
-This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
-The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

-Attempt all questions from Part I and at least one question from each of the Section A, B, C and D of Part II and one other question from any one of the sections of Part II.

PART - I Civics

Q1.(a) What is the normal term of the Lok Sabha? (1)


Q1 (b) How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? (1)


Q1 (c) What is the procedure adopted for resolving a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament with regard to an ordinary Bill? (1)

Q1 (d) What is the Constitutional provision with regard to the representation of the Anglo Indian Community in the Lok Sabha? (1)

Q1 (e) When can Ordinances be issued by the President? (1)

Q1 (f) By whom and on whose advice are the Ministers in a state appointed? (1)

Q1 (g) Mention two ways by which the Constitution ensures independence of the judges of the Supreme Court. (1)

Q1 (h) Give two advantages of the system of Local self-government. (2)

Modern Indian History And The National Movement
Q2 (a) When and by whom was the Ramakrishna Mission founded? (1)
Q2 (b) Mention two evils against which the Arya Samaj raised its voice. (1)
Q2 (c) Name two leaders of the 'Moderates'. (2)
Q2 (d) Who said "Swaraj is my birthright and I will have it"? (1)
Q2 (e) Who started the paper "The Young India". Why? (2)
Q2 (f) When was the decision regarding the Partition of Bengal officially announced? (1)
Q2 (g) Mention one reason why 1916 is considered very important in the history of the Indian National Congress ? (1)
Q2 (h) What is stated about the Princely states in the Indian Independence Act of 1947? (1)

The United Nations And The Regional Organisations
Q3 (a) Mention any two aims of the United Nations Organisation. (2)
Q3 (b) Mention the countries that are Permanent members of the Security Council in the UN (2)
Q3 (c) Who is a specialise UN agency devoted to a specific cause. What is this cause? (1)
Q3 (d) Give the expanded form of UNESCO. (1)
Q3 (e) Name the principal judicial organ of the UN (1)
Q3 (f) Name any two objectives of ASEAN. (1)
Q3 (g) The SAARC countries agreed to the establishment of SAPTA. Give the expanded form of SAPTA. (1)
Q3 (h) What is meant by the Non-aligned Movement? (1)

PART - II
Section - A (Civics)
Q4. With reference to the Rajya Sabha, answer the following questions:
(a) What are the qualification necessary to become a member of the Rajya Sabha? (4)
(b) Describe the Legislative and Financial powers of the Rajya Sabha. (6)

Q5. The Governor has been described as a nominal head of the state. He can still exercise his authority and act independently. In this context describe:
(a) his judicial powers. (4)
(b) his discretionary power (6)

Q6. With reference to urban local governments, explain:
(a) the composition of a Municipality (5)
(b) the functions of a Municipality. (5)

Section B
Modern Indian History
Q7. Raja Ram Mohan Roy raised the people from their deep slumber. In this context describe his efforts in the following fields:
(a) Social reforms (5)
(b) Spread of Western Education in India. (5)

Q8. The men who dominated the Congress from 1885 to 1905 were liberal in their views and outlook. In this context describe:
(a) the reasons for their being called the 'Moderates'. (3)
(b) the methods adopted by them. (4)
(c) the attitude of the British towards the moderates. (3)

Q9. The British policy of 'divide and rule' gave rise to the formation of the Muslim League. In this context state: a) the British policy of 'divide and rule'. (3)
(b) the objectives of the Muslim League. (4)
(c) two direct outcomes of the formation of the Muslim League. (3)

Section - C
The National Movement 1915 - 1947
Q10. The resolution to launch the Non-cooperation movement was adopted at the Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress, 1920. In this context explain:
a) What is meant by the 'Non-cooperation Movement'? Give one example.
(b) What was the impact of the Non-cooperation movement on the National Movement? (6)

Q11. The 'Quit India Movement' launched by the Congress was the last mass uprising against British rule in India. In this context state:
(a) three reasons for launching the Movement (6)
(b) the British reaction to the movement. (2)
(c) the immediate results of the Movement. (2)

Q12. Lord Mountbatten was convinced that the Partition of India was inevitable. In this context describe briefly:
(a) four of the salient features of the Mountbatten Plan. (6)
(b) the reasons for the acceptance of "Partition" by the Congress. (4)

Section - D
The United Nations And The Regional Organisations
Q13. The aim of the United Nations is to safeguard the world from the scourge of war. In this context, describe briefly:
(a) the composition of the security council. (4)
(b) the functions of the General Assembly (6)

Q14. With reference to the Declaration of Human Rights, answer the following question:
(a) What does the term Human Rights mean? (1)
(b) What do Article 1 and 2 of the Declaration of Human Rights State? (3)
(c) Give three reasons for the importance of Human Rights today. (3)
(d) What does the declaration of the Rights of the child affirm? (3)

Q15. With regard to the European Community, answer the following questions:
(a) Name any four countries which were the original members of EC. (2)
(b) State briefly any four objectives of EC (4)
(c) Mention two functions of the Council of Ministers of EC. (4)

Download previous years 2007 and 2008 latest sample papers of icse board latest all subjects physics chemistry maths economics mathematics social science history civics geography 2007 and 2008 icse board for class xth / 10th and class Xii th / 12th latest previous question papers free download online.. Soon See the answers / solutions here..

IMP interview questions Physics ICSE Board 2007 Question Paper

Physics 2007 question paper (ICSE board)
Questions:

-Answer all Questions from Part I and six questions from Part II, choosing two questions from each of the Section A, B and C.
-All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer.
-The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets ( ).
-Material to be supplied: Log tables including Trigonometric functions
-A list of useful physical constants is given at the end of this paper.

Q 1Answer all questions briefly and to the point:- (Marks 20)
(i) State Gauss's theorem of electrostatics.
(ii) An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 2000 volt. What will be the increase in its energy in electron volt?
(iii) Assuming the earth as an isolated spherical conductor of radius 6400 km, calculate its electrical capacitance in farad.
(iv) If the potential difference applied across a variable resistor is constant, draw a graph between the current in the resistor and the resistance.
(v) Find the equivalent resistance between the point 'a' and 'c' of the given network of resistors (See Fig. 1).

(vi) Show with a labelled graph how thermo-emf varies with the temperature of the hot junction of a thermocouple.
(vii) What is the function of shunt in an ammeter?
(viii) What is meant by 'Wattless' current?
(ix) Name the physical principle and one advantage in the use of optical fibers.
(x) Can two independent monochromatic source of light be coherent? Explain very briefly.
(xi) What is the relation between the refractive indices n1 and n2 if the behaviour of light rays is as shown in the following Fig. 2?

Here n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of the surrounding medium and the lens respectively.
(xii) What is the principle of global communication by satellites?
(xiii) State Brewster's law for polarisation of light.
(xiv) Two thin lenses-one convex and the other concave - of focal lengths 15 cm and 20 cm respectively are put in contact. Find the focal length of the doublet lens.
(xv) Two stars three and four light years away from the earth have same luminous intensity. Find the ration of the illuminance (intensity of illumination) on the surface of the earth, normal to the starlight, produced by each star.
(xvi) The historic experiment on the diffraction of electron confirmed a new nature of electron. What is this new nature of electron? Who had proposed it?
(xvii) Explain briefly why there is a maximum frequency for the X-Rays produced by an X-ray tube operating at a certain voltage.
(xviii) Draw circuit diagrams to illustrate forward biasing and reverse biasing of a diode.
(xix) Name two alternative sources of energy and mention where they can be used.
(xx) The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 16 hours. After how much time will 6.25% of the material remain undecayed?

PART II

Answer six question in this part, choosing two questions each from the Sections A, B and C.

SECTION A
Answer two questions

Q 2 (a) Derive an expression for the electric potential at a point due to a point charge. (Marks 4)

Q 2 (b) An electric flash lamp has 20 capacitors each of capacitance 5F connected in parallel. The lamp is operated at 100 volt. Calculate how much energy will be radiated in a flash. (Marks 3)

Q 2 (c) Name one material whose resistivity decreases with rise in temperature. Explain briefly on the basis of free electron theory why the resistivity decreases. (Marks 2)

Q 3 (a) State and explain Kirchoff's laws for electric circuits. What are the conservative laws implied in each law? State the sign convention for current and emf. Use the Fig. 3 given below for your explanation. (Marks 4)

Q 3 (b) An electron is moving vertically upwards in the uniform magnetic field of the earth. The velocity of the electron is 2.0 x 106 m/s and the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is 0.32 x 10-4 tesla. Obtain the magnitude and direction of the force on the electron. (Marks 3)

Q 3 (c) Permanent magnets are made of special alloy while the core of temporary magnets are made of soft iron. Why? (Marks 2)

Q 4 (a) Define self inductance. Obtain the expression for the self inductance of a solenoid, explaining steps with the help of a diagram. (Marks 3)

Q 4 (b) What is meant by back emf in a dc motor? The back emf in a dc motor, delivering 3 kilowatts of mechanical power, is 180 volts when operating on 220 volt line. Determine the armature current and the motor resistance. (Marks 3)

Q 4 (c) In an LCR circuit with all components connected in series, the emf and the current flowing in the circuit are given by the following equations:-
= 200 sin (314t + /6) volts
I = 5 sin 314 t ampere
Obtain:
(i) the peak values of current and emf.
(ii) the frequency of the ac source.
(iii) the phase difference between current and emf. (Marks 3)

SECTION B
Answer two questions.

Q 5 (a) State Huygens' principle. Explain with the help of a diagram the phenomenon of refraction of waves on the basis of this principle. (Marks 3)

Q 5 (b) What is chromatic aberration in lenses? State the necessary condition for an achromatic doublet. How are these conditions practically achieved? (Marks 3)

Q 5 (c) Fraunhofer diffraction from a single slit of width 1.0 m is observed with light of wavelength 500 nm. Calculate the half angular width of the central maximum. (Marks 2)

Q 6 (a) Draw a neat ray diagram of a simple microscope. Deduce the formula for its angular magnification when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision. (Marks 3)

Q 6 (b) A beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm falls on two parallel slits. The distance between the slits is 0.15 mm. Determine the width of the interference fringes on a screen placed at a distance of 1.5 m from the slits. (Marks 3)

Q 6 (c) Draw a sketch of electromagnetic spectrum, showing relative positions of UV, IR, X-rays and microwaves with respect to visible light. State approximate wavelengths of any two. (Marks 2)

Q 7 (a) With the help of neat diagram describe with theory, Michelson's method for the determination of the speed of light. What is the presently accepted nine digit value of the speed of light? (Marks 4)

Q 7 (b) What is meant by pure and impure spectrum? Explain briefly how you will set up a spectrometer to obtain pure spectrum. Draw a diagram of a spectrometer and describe its parts. (Marks 4)

SECTION C
Answer two questions.

Q 8 (a) The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 volt. Draw the energy level diagram showing four levels. Calculate
(i) the energy of the photon emitted when an electron falls from the third orbit to the second orbit.
(ii) the wavelength of this photon. (Marks 4)

Q 8 (b) Described briefly with a diagram and theory an experiment to determine e/m of electron. (Marks 4)

Q 9 (a) What is Compton scattering? State briefly its importance. (Marks 2)

Q 9 (b) When ultraviolet light of wavelength 300 nm is incident on a metal plate, a negative potential of 0.54 volt is required to stop the emission of photo electrons. Calculate the energy of the incident photon and the work function for the metal in eV. (Marks 4)

Q 9 (c) Draw the circuit diagram of a half wave rectifier using a semi-conductor diode. Explain briefly the function of each component. (Marks 2)

Q 10 (a) Heavy water is suitable moderator in a nuclear reactor. Explain briefly why? (Marks 2)

Q 10 (b) Draw labelled diagrams to illustrate
(i) energy bands of a conductor, semiconductor and insulator.
(ii) npn and pnp transistors.
(iii) transistor as an amplifier (common emitter). (Marks 4)

Q 10 (c) What do you mean by AND gate? How will you realise AND gate with junction diodes? (Marks 2)

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IMP interview questionsb Download 2007 Chemistry ICSE Board Question Paper

2007 year Chemistry subject ( I.C.S.E ) Board Previous Question Paper free download online..
Question 1 of Set I

-Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
- You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
- This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
- Section A is compulsory and attempt any four questions from Section B.
- The intended marks for questions or parts of questions, are given in brackets [ ].

Science
SECTION - A (40 Marks)
Compulsory : To be attempted by all candidates.

Q.1 (a) Chlorine is the subject of the following questions :
(i) What is the atomicity ?
(ii) Name the compounds formed when chlorine react with water.
(iii) Chlorine reacts with white phosphorus forming phosphorus trichloride and phosphorus pentachloride . Write balanced equation for the formation of each of these compounds.

Q.1(b) Answer the following questions, relating your answer only to salts in the list given below: Anhydrous calcium chloride, copper sulphate-5-water, sodium carbonate-10-water.
(i) Which compound is efflorescent ?
(ii) Which compound is blue in colour ?
(iii) Which compound is deliquescent ?
(iv) What would be seen in mixing a solution of calcium chloride with a solution of sodium carbonate ?
(v) Write a balanced equation for the reaction occurring when a solution of calcium chloride is mixed with a solution of sodium carbonate.

Q.1(c) In this question you are required to supply the word (or words) that will make each sentence in to a correct statement which to be written down in full.
Example: sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride.
Answer: Molten sodium reacts with chloride to form sodium chloride.
(i) The electrolysis of lead bromide liberates lead and bromine.
(ii) Copper sulphate crystals are dehydrated by sulphuric acid.
(iii) Calcium nitrate reacts with sodium sulphate to form calcium sulphate. (same word is required in two places.)
(iv) Crystals of sulphur are obtained when a solution of sulphur in carbon disulphide is allowed to evaporate.

Q.1(d) If a crop of wheat removes 20 kg of nitrogen per hectare of soil, what mass of the fertilizer calcium nitrate Ca(NO3)2 would be required to replace the nitrogen in a 10-hectare field ? (N = 14; O = 16; Ca = 40. Answer to the nearest kg.)

Q.1(e)(i) A vessel contains N molecules of oxygen at a certain temperature and pressure. How many molecules of sulphur dioxide can the vessel accommodate at the same temperature and pressure ?
(ii) Each of two flasks contains 2.0 g of gas at the same temperature and pressure. One flask contain oxygen and the other hydrogen.

1. Which sample contains the greater number of molecules ?

2. If the hydrogen sample contains N molecules, how many molecules are present in the oxygen sample ? (H = 1; O = 16.)

(iii) A gas sample occupies 4 litres at 270C and P atmospheric pressure. What would be its volume at 3270C and 2P atmospheric pressure ?

Q.1(f) Describe, in each case, one chemical test that would enable you to distinguish between the following pairs of chemicals. Describe what happens with each chemical or state no 'visible reaction'.
(i) sodium chloride solution and sodium nitrate solution ;
(ii) sodium sulphate solution and sodium chloride solution ;
(iii) calcium nitrate solution and zinc nitrate solution;

Q.1(g) Write balanced equations for each of the following reactions :
(i) Magnesium heated in nitrogen ;
(ii) Action of heat on sodium nitrate ;
(iii) Action of heat on copper nitrate ;
(iv) Zinc and dilute sulphuric acid ;
(v) Ethene and hydrogen ;
(vi) Nitrogen monoxide and oxygen.

Q2.(a) Choose the Correct word or phrase from the bracket to complete the following sentences :
(i) Ammonium chloride is a soluble salt prepared by ___________ (precipitation, neutralization).
(ii) When ammonium chloride is heated, it undergoes __________ (thermal decomposition, thermal dissociation).
(iii) Heating ammonium chloride with sodium hydroxide produces __________ ( ammonia, nitrogen).
(iv) Heating a solution of ammonium chloride and sodium nitrite produces __________ (ammonia, nitrogen).

Q2.(b) Write the correctly balanced equation for each of the reactions mentioned in statements (i) - (iv) above.

Q2.(c) Describe what you see when concentrated nitric acid is added to copper.

Q.3(a)(i) What is the colour of the flame seen when sulphur burns in air ?
Q.3(a)(ii) Name the product formed when sulphur is burnt in air or oxygen.`
Q.3(a)(iii) When burning sulphur reacts with water, a compound is formed. Name the compound.
Q.3(a)(iv) Write the balanced equation for the reaction between sulphur dioxide and moist chlorine.
Q.3(a)(v) In the reaction mentioned in question (iv) above, which substance is the oxidizing
agent ?

Q.3(b)(i) What is the purpose of the Contact Process ?
Q.3(b)(ii) Name the catalyst used in the Contact Process.
Q.3(b)(iii) Write the balanced equation for the reaction in the Contact Process which takes place in the presence of the catalyst.
Q.3(c)(i) When hydrogen sulphide reacts with oxidizing agents, what substance is always a product of the reaction ?
Q.3(c)(ii) What is the colour of the precipitation formed when hydrogen sulphide is bubbled through copper sulphate solution ?

Q.4(a) With reference to the reduction of copper oxide, iron (II) oxide, lead (II) and magnesium oxide by hydrogen, place the oxides in order of increasing ease of reduction. That is, put first the oxide that is most difficult to reduce ; and last, the oxide that is most easily reduced.
Q.4(b) Write balanced equations for the following reactions :
Q.4(b)(i) Reduction of copper oxide by hydrogen.
Q.4(b)(ii) Reduction of iron (III) oxide by carbon monoxide.
Q.4(b)(iii) Reduction of lead (II) oxide by carbon.
Q.4(c)(i) What is the type of bonding expected in a metallic chloride ?
Q.4(c)(ii) If a fused metallic chloride is electrolysed, at which electrode would the metal be obtained ?
Q.4(c)(iii) What metallic property is shown by the non-metal graphite ?

Q.4(d)(i) Cast iron contains about 4% carbon. By what chemical process is the amount of carbon decreased to make steel ?

Q5.(a) Concentrated nitric acid oxidises phosphorus to phosphoric acid according to the following equation :
P + 5HNO3 ¾® H3PO4 + H2O + 5NO2
Q5.(a)(i) What mass of phosphoric acid can be prepared from 6.2 g of phosphorus ?
Q5.(a)(ii) What mass of nitric acid will be consumed at the same time ?
Q5.(a)(iii) What would be the volume of steam produced at the same time if measured at 760 mm Hg pressure and 273oC ?
(H = 1; N = 14; O = 16; P = 31)
Q.5(b) Ammonia may be oxidized to nitrogen monoxide in the presence of a catalyst according to the following equation :
4NH3 + 5O2 ¾® 4NO + 6H2O
If 27 litres of reactants at the same temperature and pressure ?

Q.6(a) For each of the compounds (i) Ethane, (ii) Vinegar and (iii) Marsh gas, draw the relevant structural formula.

Q.6(b)(i) What word is used to describe these three compounds taken together ?
Q.6(b)(ii) What is the special feature of the structure of : 1. C2H4
2. C2H2

Q.6(b)(iii) What type of reaction is common to both these compounds ?

Q7(a) Define the following terms :
(i) Acid
(ii) pH scale
(iii) neutralization

Q.7 (b)(i) Outline the steps that would be necessary to convert insoluble lead (II) oxide into insoluble lead chloride.
Q.7 (b)(ii) Write the balanced equations for the reactions required to convert insoluble lead (II) oxide into insoluble lead chloride.
Q.7 (b)(iii) If iron reacts with dilute sulphuric acid, what will be the products ?
Q.7 (b)(iv) A solution of iron (III) chloride has a pH less than 7. Is the solution acidic or alkaline ?

Download previous years 2007 and 2008 latest sample papers of icse board latest all subjects physics chemistry maths economics mathematics social science history civics geography 2007 and 2008 icse board for class xth / 10th and class Xii th / 12th latest previous question papers free download online.. Soon See the answers / solutions here..

IMP interview questions Biology ICSE Board Question Paper

Free online Biology - 1997 (I.C.S.E) Previous Year Question Papers. Solutions / answers soon..
You are on questions 1 to 2

- Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
- You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
- This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
- The given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
- This question paper is divided into two sections.
- Section I contains one question with six parts (a) to (f) ;
- All six parts are to be answered.
- Section II contains six questions, numbered 2 to 7 .
- You are to answer any four of these questions.
- The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets[].

SECTION -- I (40 Marks )
Compulsory : Answer all parts in this section.
Q 1 (a)
Name the following :
(i) A pollutant which reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of blood.
(ii) The male reproductive cells of mammals.
(iii) Sheet of muscle between the thorax and abdomen of mammals.
(iv) The element required for clotting blood in man.
(v) The tube that leads from the ovary of the uterus.
(vi) Openings found on the undersurface of dorsiventral leaves.
(vii) Tissue concerned with upward conduction of water in plants.
(viii) Condition of cell in which the cell contents are shrunken.

Q 1(b) Complete the following sentences (i) to (vi) given belows by filling in the appropriate word of terms from the given below:
Osmosis, Ciliary muscle, Aorta, Stapes, Alveoli, W.H. O, Malleus, Diffusion, Dorsal Aorta, Bronchioles, Iris, Red cross.
(i) The part of eye responsible for change in the size of the pupil is the .............................
(ii) The process by which molecules distribute themselves evenly within the space they occupy is termed ........................
(iii)The ultimate end parts of the respiratory system in man are the .................................
(iv) The organisation which provides relief to victims of any nationals calamity is the ...............................
(v) The blood vessel leaving the left ventricle of the mammalian heart is the .............................
(vi) The ear ossicle in contact with the oval window of the inner ear is the ...............................

Q 1 (c)(i) Mention if the following statements are true or false:
1. The pregnancy of the women can be prevented by the method of Vasectomy.
2. Cones are the receptors cells in the retina of the eye sensitive to dim light.
3. The unit of light absorbed by the chlorophyll during photosynthesis is the proton.
4. D.D.T is a disinfectant.
5. Lungs of man are protected by the pericardium.
6. The part of the ear associated with balance is the cochlea.

(ii) Rewrite the wrong statements from 1 to 6 above in the correct form by changing only the first or last word.

Q 1 (d) The diagram along side represent certain organs in the abdominal region of man.
(i) Level the parts numbered 1 to 7.
(ii) Name the organ systems shown in the diagram.
(iii) Name three parts other than those marked which are clearly seen in the diagram.

Q 1 (e) Given alongside is the diagram of a bean root:
(i) What term is given to the part marked 'X' ?
(ii) What does it contain?
(iii) What significant role is played by the
structure named in Q (ii) above in the soil? Briefly discuss how the structure plays this role.
(iv) What happens to the above mentioned structure when the plants dies?

Q 1 (f) Give one point of difference between any three of the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in the brackets.
(i) Sensory and motor neuron. (function)
(ii) Blood and lymph. (composition)
(iii) Dicot and monocot stem (arrangements of vascular bundles )
(iv) Inspired and expired air (percentage of Oxygen and carbon dioxide)
(v) Ureter and Urethra (function)

Section - 2

Q 2 (a) The diagram given below represents the spinal cord of mammal seen in a transverse section together with the nerves . Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

(i) Label the parts 1-8 indicated by guide- lines.
(ii) what do the arrows indicate ? What is the pathway indicated termed ?
(iii) What type of nerve is shown in the diagram ?

Q 2 (b) Complete the following table by filling in the correct location of the following structures in the human body and mention one main function of each:

Structure Location Function
(i) Epiglotis
(ii) Eustachian tube
(iii) Chordae tendinae
(iv) Nephron
(v) Organ of Corti

Section-II

Q 3 (a) (i) Draw a neat labeled diagram of the apparatus you would set up to show that oxygen is given out during photosynthesis.
(ii) Give the overall equation to represent the process of photosynthesis.

Q 3 (b) Write briefly as indicated in the brackets on the following :
(i) Myopia (Symptom and Cause)
(ii) Penicillin (Source and Function)
(iii) Red Blood Corpuscles (Origin and Function)
(iv) Tympanum (Location and Function)
(v) Mitochondria (Structure and Function)

Q 4 (a) The figure alongside shows an experiment performed on germinating seeds. Study the same and then answer the question that follow :
(i)What is the aim of the experiment?
(ii)Write the chemical equation for the process mentioned in Q (i) above.
(iii)Draw a neat labeled diagram of the apparatus as it would appear after 24 hours.
(iv)The soaked seeds used in the experiment their seed coats removed. Give a reason for the same.

Q 4 (b) Answer briefly the following question:
(i)Why are capillaries thin walled?
(ii)Mention two functions of the choroid coat in the eye.
(iii)What is meant by gestation period?
(iv)What is the effect of shivering?
(v)What is meant by photolysis of water?

Q 5 (a) Given below is the simplified pathway of the circulatory system of man :-
(i) Name the blood vessels marked 1 to 8.
(ii) Name the chamber of the heart which :-
1. receives blood from '1',
2. pumps blood into blood vessel '8'.
(iii) Mention two structural differences between blood vessels '7' and '2'.

Q 5 (b)
(i) Define transpiration.
(ii) Describe an experiment to prove that transpiration occurs more from the under surface of dorsiventral leaves.

Q 6 (a) The figure alongside is the structure of a cell :
(i) Label the parts A to I as indicated by guidelines.
(ii) Is it a plant cell or an animal cell ? Give one reason to support your answer.
(iii) Is the cell shown, turgid or flaccid?

Q 6 (b) Give appropriate terms for the following :
(i) A membrane that surrounds the foetus and secretes a protective fluid.
(ii) Protective coverings of the brain and spinal cord.
(iii) A statistical study of human population.
(iv) Substances that are applied to the surroundings where germs thrive and and multiply.
(v) The inward movements of solvent molecules through the plasma membrane of a cell.
(vi) Loss of water in the form of droplets from the margin of a leaf.
(vii) Adjustment of the eyes in the order to obtain a clear vision of object at different distances.
(viii) The small amount of inhaled air in the respiratory tract that does not take part in gaseous exchange.

Q 7 Explain briefly the idea contents in any five of the following statements :
(i) Oxygen given out during photosynthesis comes from water.
(ii) The need to limit the size of family is more vital today than ever before. Give two reasons.
(iii) Root hairs becomes flaccid , when fertilizer are added to the moist soil around it.
(iv) Transplanting of seedlings to a flower bed in the evening is better than doing so in the morning.
(v) In summer urine is slightly thicker than in winter .
(vi) The man can live without food for a number of days but he can not survive without Oxygen for more than a few minutes.
(vii) Environmental pollution is a recent problem . Do you agree ? Give two reasons to support your answer.

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IMP interview questions Physics ICSE Board Previous Question Paper - 2

Physics ( I.C.S.E) free online previous year question paper icse board class xth / 10th
Questions:

-Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
-You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
-This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
-The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
-This question paper is divided into two Sections.
-Section I contains one question with ten parts (a) to (j); all ten parts are to be answered
-Section II contains six questions, numbered 2 to 7.
-You are to answer four of these questions

SECTION -I
COMPULSORY : To be attempted by all candidates.

Q 1 (a)(i)How fast should a man weighing 60 Kg run so that his Kinetic energy is 750 J?

(ii) A body of mass 1 Kg is thrown vertically up with an initial sped of 5 m/s. What is the magnitude and direction of force due to gravity acting on the body when it is at its highest point?


Q 1 (b)Diagram given below shows a weightless lever in equillibrium. Neglect friction at the fulcrum F.

(i) State the principle of moments as applied to the above lever.

(ii) Define mechanical advantage and calculate its value for the given lever.

(iii) Name the type of lever which has mechanical advantage greater than 1.

Q 1 (c) A body weighs 20 gf in air, 18.2 gf in a liquid and 18.0 gf in water.
Calculate:
(i) The relative density of the body , and
(ii) The relative density of the liquid.

Q 1 (d) (i) Define 'Specific latent heat of fusion of ice'. Give its S.I unit.

(ii) What is the effect of increase in pressure on the melting point of ice and boiling point of water ?
Q 1 (e)Diagram 2 below shows a right angled prism of refractive index 1.5. An object PQ is placed in front of its base BC.

Copy the diagram.

(i)Complete the diagram showing the image produced by the prism.

(ii)Name an instrument in which such prism is used.

Q 1 (f)Diagram 3 below shows an object AB placed on the principal axis of a convex lens placed in air. F1 and F2 are two foci of the lens.

Copy the diagram.

(i) Draw a ray of light starting from B and passing through O. Show the same ray after refraction by the lens.

(ii) Draw another ray from B which passes through F2 after refraction by the lens.

(iii) Locate the final image formed .

(iv) Is the image real or virtual ?

Q 1 (g) In the nuclear reaction given below, a nucleus X changes to another nucleus Y.
88X226 ---> Y - a + energy.

(i) What are the atomic and mass numbers of Y ?

(ii) Name the gas formed when the a-particles acquires two electrons.

(iii) What is the effect on the motion of the a- particle when it passes through a region containing a magnetic field ?

Q 1 (h) Diagram 4 below shows a circuit containing a coil wound on a long and thin hollow cardboard tube.

Copy the diagram.

i) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.

ii) Draw the magnetic lines of force inside the coil and also show their directions.

iii) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.

Q 1 (i)Ultra-violet light falls on a dry zinc plate.

i) Name the particles emitted from the plate.

ii)What is the nature of charge acquired by the plate ?

iii) Name the phenomenon that takes place.

iv) Name one of the devices based upon the above phenomenon.

Q 1 (j)(i) Give one example each of the materials suitable for making
1. Fuse wire and
2. Heater element

(ii) Define angle of dip. At what places on earth will the angle of dip be
1. Maximum and
2. Minimum

Q 2(a) A block of mass 30 Kg is pulled up a slope (Diagram 5 below) with a constant speed by applying a force of 200 N parallel to the slope. A and B are initial and final position of the block.

(i) Calculate the work done by the force in moving the block from A to B

(ii) Calculate the potential energy gained by the block.

Q 2 (b) Diagram 6 below gives an arrangement of single moving pulleys.
Copy the diagram

If the effort applied at the free end of the string is E,

(i) show the direction and magnitude of the forces exerted by the four strings marked (1) to (4).

(ii) what is the load which can be lifted by the effort ?

(iii) calculate the mechanical advantage of the system of pulleys.

Q 2 (c) A block of wood is floating in water. The portion of the block inside water measures 50 cm x 50 cm x 50 cm. What is the magnitude of the buoyancy force acting on the block ?
Q 3(a) A piece of metal at 10oC has a mass of 50g. When it is immersed in a current of steam at 100oC,0.7g of steam is condensed on it. Calculate the specific heat of of the metal.
Given : Latent heat of steam = 540 Cal/g.

Q 3 (b) Explain briefly :

(i) Why hot water bottles are very efficient for fomentation ?

(ii) How human body temperature is maintained at normal value (37oC) when the atmospheric temperature rises as high as 45oC?
Q 4(a) (i) State Snell's law of refraction of light.

(ii) Diagram 7 below shows a glass prism placed in minimum deviation position. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on it's face AB.

Copy the diagram and show the refracted ray and the emergent ray. Mark the angle of deviation.
State any two factors on which the angle of deviation depends.

Q 4 (b) (i) Define dispersion of light.

(ii) Explain briefly how white light gets dispersed by a prism.

(iii) What is an impure spectrum?

Q 5(a) (i) State any two characteristics of a wave motion.

(ii) What is the relation between frequency, wavelength and speed of a wave?

(iii) A longitudinal wave of wavelength 1cm travels in air with a speed of 330m/s. Calculate the frequency of the wave.
Can this wave be heard by a normal human being?

Q 5 (b) Two waves A and B have wavelengths 0.01 Ao and 9000 Ao respectively.

(i) Name the two waves.

(ii) Are the speeds of these two waves equal when they travel in vacuum ?

(iii) If the amplitude of a wave is doubled, what will be the effects on its loudness?

Q 6(a) Given below is the circuit diagram (Diagram 8) in which three resistances 1 ohm, 2 ohm, 3 ohm are connected to a cell of e.m.f. 2 V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm.

(i) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.

(ii) What is the reading of the ammeter ?

(iii) What will be the ammeter reading if an exactly similar cell is connected in series with the given cell ?

Q 6 (b) (i) Draw the neat labeled diagram of an a.c. generator.

(ii) What is the magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in the coil when its plane becomes parallel to the magnetic field ?

Q 7(a) (i) Draw a labeled circuit diagram of a full-wave rectifier using two diodes.

(ii) Why is diode called a valve?

(iii) Draw two diagrams one above another, one showing the input and the other showing the output in the above case.

Q 7 (b) (i) Draw a neat labeled diagram of a modern X- ray tube.

(ii) What is the mechanism of energy production in a fission reaction?

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IMP interview questions Economics ICSE Board Question Paper 1

Economics ( I.C.S.E ) preivous year question paper free ICSE Board class xth / 10th standard
Questions

(Two Hours)

- Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
- You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
- Duration of the exam is 2 hours.
- This time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
- Attempt all questions from Section A and four question from Section B.
- The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given. in brackets [ ].

SECTION -A
Attempt all questions.
(Answers should be brief and to the point).

Q 1 (a) What are the chief methods of lending available to commercial banks?

Q 1 (b) Give two characteristics of the Green Revolution.

Q 1 (c) Define the role of capital in production.

Q 1 (d) Mention two features of a mixed economy.

Q 2 (a) Distinguish between Simple and Complex Division of Labour.

Q 2 (b) Explain how division of labour is limited by the extent of the market.

Q 2 (c) How does rapid growth of population aggravate the food problem ?

Q 2 (d) Mention two causes for the low productivity of Indian agriculture.

Q 3 (a) State the factors which determine the creation of savings in a country.

Q 3 (b) Mention two factors which determine the supply of labour in a country.

Q 3 (c) State any two drawbacks of State enterprises.

Q 3 (d) Give two features of sole proprietorship.

Q 4 (a) Differentiate between Sunk Capital and Floating Capital.

Q 4 (b) Give two factors that show the importance of agriculture for industrial development.

Q 4 (c) Mention two advantages of a bank account.

Q 4 (d) Examine any two major problems of the Jute Industry in India.

SECTION - B
Answer any four questions from this Section.
Q 5 (a) What is the meaning of "land" in economic terms ? Discuss any four peculiarities of land as a factor of production.
Q 5(b) Discuss the importance of Small Scale Industries and Cottage Industries in the Indian economy.

Q 6 (a) Explain briefly the meaning of efficiency of labor and state four factors which determine the efficiency of labor.

Q 6 (b) What is meant by "agriculture labor" ? Give four reasons for the rapid growth of agricultural labor in India.

Q 7 (a) Describe the quantitative method of credit control adopted by the central bank to control credit.
Q 7 (b) What are the co-operative societies? Explain the three different ways in which is co-operative are organized in India.

Q 8 (a) How is a Joint Stock Company formed ? In what four respects does a Joint Stock Company differ from a Partnership?
Q 8 (b) Discuss two objectives of land reform and give a brief account of tenancy reforms in India.

Q 9 (a) What is meant by subdivision and fragmentation of holdings ? Describe any four causes for the subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings .

Q 9 (b) Examine any four reasons for the importance of good transport in a growing in economy like that of India .

Q 10 (a) What is Economic Planning ? Explain the reasons for the three Annual Plans of 1966-'68, 1968-'69.
Q 10 (b) Discuss any four functions of the Government in economic development.

Q 11 (a) Discuss any four reasons to show that rapid industrialisation of our country is essential
Q 11 (b) What is fiscal policy ? How can fiscal policy be used for economic development .

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IMP interview questions Biology ICSE Board Question Paper 2

Biology ( I.C.S.E) previous 2007 Year Question Paper for icse board class 10th / xth free pdf.
Questions - 1 & 2

Time:One Hour and a Half

-Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
-You will NOT be allowed to write during the firs 15 minutes.
-This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
-The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writting the answers.
-The question paper is divided into two Sections.
-Section I contains one questions with five parts (a) to (e); all five parts are to be answered.
-Section II contains six questions numbered 2 to 7. You are to answer any four of these questions.
-The intented marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets[ ].

Section-I 40 (Marks)

Q 1 (a) Name the following :
(i) The duct which transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.
(ii) the endocrine gland which produces emergency hormone .
(iii) The sheet of muscle between the thorax and the abdomen of man.
(iv) The fluid that is present inside and outside the brain.
(v) The opening though which light enters the eyes.
(vi) Openings on the stem through which transpiration occurs.
(vii) The organ in man concerned with maintaining water balance in the body.
(viii) The photosensitive pigment present in the 'rod' cells in the retina.

Q 1 (b) Select the correct answer out of four available choices given under each question. Rewrite the correct answer from I to VIII :

(I) Osmosis involves diffusion of :
(i) suspended particles from lower to higher concentration.
(ii) suspended particles from higher to lower concentration.
(iii) water from the more concentration solution to the less concentrated solution.
(iv) water from the less concentration solution to the more concentrated solution.

(II) Transpiration pull will be maximum under which of the following conditions?
(i) open stomata, dry atmosphere and moist soil.
(ii) open stomata, high humid atmosphere and well irrigated soil.
(iii) open stomata, high humid atmosphere and dry soil.
(iv) closed stomata, dry atmosphere and moist soil.

(III) If the rate of respiration becomes more than the rate of photosynthesis, plants will :
(i) continue to live , but will not be able to store food.
(ii) Be killed instantly.
(iii) grow more vigorously because more energy will be available.
(iv) stop growing and gradually die of starvation.

(IV) Which one of these reactions occurs during photosynthesis ?
(i) carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised.
(ii) water is reduced and carbon dioxide is oxidised.
(iii) carbon dioxide and water are both oxidised
(iv) carbon dioxide and water are both reduced.

(V) Excretion commonly involves :
(i) removal of all by-products during catabolism.
(ii) removal of by-products during anabolism.
(iii) removal of nitrogenous waste.
(iv) all of the above.

(VI) In mammals , the cropus callosum connects :
(i) the two optic lobes.
(ii) the two cerebral hemispheres.
(iii) the two cerebrum to the cerebellum.
(iv) the pons to the medulla oblongata.

(VII) which of the following is the route that a sperm follows when it leaves the testis of a mammal ?
(i) Vas deferens -> eqpididymis -> urethra.
(ii) urethra-> eqididymis-> vas deferens.
(iii) epididymis -> urethra -> vas deferens
(iv) eqididymis -> vas deferens -> urethra.

(VIII) Which one of the following NOT a function of WHO ?
(i) Maintaining statisticalhealth records for most countries.
(ii) Preparetion and marketing of new medicines.
(iii) Regulateing international quarantine work.
(iv) Playing an important role in the eradication of epidemic and endemic diseases.

Q 1(c) Given below is an example of a certain structure and its special functional activity e.g. Kidney and excretion. On a similar pattern fill in the blanks :
(i) Ribosomes and ......................................
(ii) Blood platelets and ................................
(iii) Cochlea and .........................................
(iv) Hydathodes and ..................................
(v) Alveoli and ...........................................
(vi) Chloroplasts and .................................
(vii) Meninges and ....................................
(viii) Neutrophils and ................................

Q 1(d) Choose the odd one in each of the following :
Example : Calyx , Corolla, style , Androecium.
Answer : style
i)Insulin , Blood sugar, Andrenalin , Thyroxine
ii)Oestrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone , Prolactin
iii)Larynx, Pancrease , Testis , Ovary
iv)Cerebrum , Cranium , Cerebellum , Pons
v)Cell wall, Plastids , Large Vacuole , Centrosome
vi)Cortex , Pelvis , Retina , Medulla
vii)Trachea , Bronchus , Alveolus , Diaphgram
viii)Phenol , Boric acid , Iodine , Mercurochrome.

Q 1 (e) Which of the statements in Coloum II are appropriate for the items listed in Coloum I ? Rewrite the correct matching pairs :

Column I Column II
1)The blind spot a) carries impulses away from the brain and spinal cord.
2)The yellow spot b)carries impulses towards the brain and spinal cord
3)The stroma c)is the place for aerobic respiration.
4)The grana d)is the place for dark reaction of photosynthesis
5)Cretinism e)is the place through which transpiration takes place.
6)Myxoedema f)is the place for light reaction of photosynthesis
7)Afferent neuron g)is the number of deaths in a specified number of time
8)Mortality h)is the number of live births in a specified period of time
i)is free of rod cells.
j)is the exact centre of the posterior portion of the retina
k)is a condition due to undersecretion of thyroxine in an adult.
l)is a condition due to lack of thyroxine in a child.

Section-lI

Q 2 (a) The following simplified diagram refers to the outline plan of the circulation of blood in a mammal. Study the diagram and write the number and the name of the blood vessel in each case as mentioned under :

(i) several hours after a meal containing a lot of protein, which vessel will contain the highest concentration of urea ?

(ii)Which vessel would contain the highest concentration of amino acids and glucose soon after a
meal ?

(iii)Which vessel begins and ends in capillaries ?

(iv)Which vessel will contain the smallest number of red blood cell per unit volume of blood ?

(v)In which vessel will the blood carry the most oxyhaemoglobin ?

Q 2 (b) Explain briefly the role of the following health aids :
( i) Antiseptics
(ii) Disinfectants
(iii) Penicillin
(iv) Sulphonamides
(v) Vaccines

Q 3 (a) Moist germinated seeds were placed in thermos flask A, and germinating seeds which were placed in thermos flask B. Thermometers wre inserted in the flasks and the mouth of each flasks plugged with moist cotton wool. The two flasks were fixed upside down as shown in the diagram. The initial temperature on both thermometers was noted . After about 48 hours, the temperature in flask A was found to be much higher than that in flask B

i) State the object of using the apparatus
ii) Explain why a rise in temperature occurs in flask A
iii) If 5% formalin was not used after boiling the seeds, the temperature of flask B would have risen considerably. Explain
iv) Why were the flasks inverted ?

Q 3 (b) The following diagram is that of a human brain. Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate different parts of the surface of the brain and these are as follows :
1. Frontal lobe of cerebrum
2. Temporal lobe of cerebrum
3. Occipital lobe of cerebrum
4.Cerebellum
5. Medulla oblongata

study the diagram and answer the following questions :
(I) What handicaps would result from :
i) damage to part numbered 3 ?
(ii) damage to part numbered 4 ?
(II) Mention one main function of each of the parts numbered 1, 2and 5.

Q 4(a) The following diagram represents a mammalian kidney tubule and its blood supply. Parts indicated by the guidelines 1 to 8 are as follows :
1.U-shaped loop of Henle.
2. Proximal convoluted tubule with blood capilliaries
3.Bowman's capsule
4.Afferent arteriole from renal artery.
5. Glomerulus
6.Venule to renal vein
7.Collecting tubule
8. Distal convoluted tubule with blood capillaries

study the diagram and answer the following questions in each case :
i)Where does ultrafiltration take place /
ii)Which structures contains the lowest concentration of urea ?
iii)Which structures contains the highest concentration of urea ?
iv)Which structures contains the lowest concentration of glucose ?
v)Where is the most water reabsorbed ?

Q 4 (b) A well watered healthy potted plant with variegated leaves was kept in darkness for about 24 hours. It was then set up asshown in the diagram below and exposed to light for about 12 hours. At the end of this time, leaf X and leaf Y were tested for starch. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follows :

i) why was the plant initially kept in darkness for 24 hours ?
ii) What is the function of sodium hydroxide solution in the flask ?
iii) select the correct leaf from the five available choices shown in the diagram as A,B,C,D,and E . Rewrite the correct answer by filling in the appropriate letter for the question that follows :
1) After the starch test, leaf X would look like ..............................
2) After the starch test, leaf Y would look like...............................
iv) The experiment with leaf Y shows that photosynthesis requires the presence of certain factors. Mention any one factor.

Q 5 (a) State one function of each of the following :
i) Ciliated epithelium lining the respiratory tract
ii) Epiglottis
iii) Skin
iv) Mitochondria
v)Medulla Oblongata

Q 5 (b) The following diagram represents a plant cell after being placed in a strong sugar solution . Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate the following :
1. Cell wall
2. Strong sugar solution
3. Protoplasm
4. Large vacuole
5. Nucleus

study the diagram and answer the questions that follow :

i)What is the state of the cell shown in the diagram ?

ii)Name the structure which act as a selectively permeable membrane.

iii) If the cell had been placed in distilled water instead of strong sugar solution , which features would not have been present ?

iv) If the cell in the diagram possessed chloroplasts, where would these be present ?

v) Name any one feature of this plant cell which is not present in animals cells.

Q 6 (a) The diagram below shows part of the capillary bed in an organ of the mammalian body. Some of the blood arriving at the capillaries at points labelled. A moves out into the spaces between the tissue cells. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follows :

i) when the liquid from the blood is surrounding the cells , what is it called ?

ii) Name any one important component of the blood which remains inside the capillaries and fails to move out into the spaces.

iii) Some of the liquid surroundings the cells does not pass directly back into the blood but eventually reaches it by another route through vessel X. Name the fluid present in vessel X.

Q 6 (b) Answer the following questions :
i) Name the endocrine cells present in the Pancreas.
ii)Name two hormones secreted by the above mentioned cells.
iii)Mention one main function of each hormone named in (ii)

Q 7 (a)The figure given below represents the female reproductive system of a mammal. Parts indicated by the guideline A to D are as follows :

A. Uterus
B. Fallopian tube
C. Ovary
D. Vagina

Give appropriate terms for each of the following :
i)the cost of reproductive phase in a young female
ii)Rupture of follicle and release of ovum from the ovary.
iii)Monthly discharge of blood and disintegerated tissues in human female
iv)Process of fusion of ovum and sperm
v)Fixing of developing zygote on the uterine wall.

Q 7 (b) Differentiate between members of each of the following pairs with reference to the phrases in brackets :
(i)Osmosis and Diffusion (flow of solvent molecules)
(ii) Myopia and hypermetropia (cause of the defect)
(iii) Glycolysis and Kreb's cycle (Reaction site of the process in a cell)iv) artery and vein (Direction of blood flow)
(v) Aerobic and anaerobic respiration (End products of the process)

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IMP interview questions Physics ICSE Board Question Paper 3

Physics I.C.S.E previous years question papers 2006 2007 2008 sample question papers class 10th xii th and class 12th xith Xii th of all subjects free download online.. see answers / solutions soon..

Questions

Q1(a)(i)What is the S.I unit of work?

Q1(a)(ii)A body of mass 1 Kg falls from a height of 5 m. How much energy does it possess at any instant (take g = 9.8m/s2) ?

Q1(a)(iii)When a body moves in a circular path , how much work does it do?

Q1(b)The diagram given below shows the use of a lever.

(i)State the principle of moments as applied to the above lever.

(ii)Give an example of this class of lever.

(iii)If FA=10 cm,AB=500 cm, calculate the minimum effort required to lift the load.

Q1(c)(i)State Archimedes' Principle.

Q1(c)(ii)A man first swims in sea water and then in river water.
1. Compare the weight of sea water and river water displaced by him.
2. Where does he find it easier to swim and why?

Q1(d)(i) The graph below represents a cooling curve for a substance being cooled from a higher temperature to a lower temperature.
1. What is the boiling point of the substance?
2. What happens in the region DE?
3. Why is the region DE shorter than the region BC?

Q1(d)(ii)At what approximate temperature will water boil in a pressure cooker?

Q1(e)The diagram below shows a ray of white light AO incident on a rectangular glass block, which is silvered at one surface. This ray is partly refracted.
(i) Copy the diagram and trace the path of the refracted and reflected ray. Show at least two rays emerging from the surface PQ.
(ii)How many images are formed in the above case? Which image is the brightest?

Q1(f) The diagram below shows a students vision from his near point.
(i) What defect is he suffering from?
(ii) State one cause for the occurrence of this defect.
(iii) Copy the diagram and complete to show how this defect is corrected.

Q1(g)(i)The following diagram shows two straight wires carrying current.Copy the diagram and draw the pattern of lines of force around them and mark their directions.

(ii)How is galvanometer converted to
1. an ammeter
2. a voltmeter

Q1(h)(i) A refrigerator is marked 80W and 220V
1. How much energy does it consume in one day if on an average it is used for 20 hrs. a day?
2. What is likely to happen if the voltage drops to 50V?

Q1(h)(ii)Score off the incorrect words and write correctly the following:
In wiring a three-pinplug , the brown sleeved wire is connected to the neutral/live pin and the green/blue sleeved wire is connected to the metal body of the appliance.

Q1(i)X-rays are produced in a coolidge tube when cathode rays are made to strike a target.
(1).Why is the anode of the tube heated up at the the time of emission of X-rays?
(2). How is the strength and penetrating power controlled?
(3) Which of the soft and hard X-rays has a longer wavelength and which has higher penetrating power?

Q1(j)(i)State the transformation of energy taking place in a
1. Loud speaker
2. Washing machine

Q1(j)(ii)An a particle absorbs an electron. What does it change to?

Q1(j)(iii)A fusion reaction is represented as follows
1H2 + 1H2-----> 2He4 + x.
Identify x.

Q2(a)A bullet of mass 50 g is moving with a velocity of 500 m/s. It penetrates 10 cm into a still target and comes to rest.
1. Calculate the K.E possessed by the bullet.
2. The average retarding force offered by the target.

Q2(b)The diagram alongside shows a system of 5 pulleys.

1.Copy the diagram and complete it by drawing a string around the pulleys. Mark the position of load and effort.
2. If the load is raised by 1 m, through what distance will the effort move?

Q2(c)A flat - bottomed test-tube floats upright with some lead shots, on the surface of water 10 cm of its length immersed. The tube and the lead shots were found to weigh 20 g, when weighed in a beam balance.The same test-tube when floated in Kerosene was found to float with 12 cm immersed.
1. What mass of water does it displace when floated on water?
2. What is the area of cross-section of the tube?
3. calculate the R.D of Kerosene.

Q3.(a)Explain why bottled soft drinks are more effectively cooled by cubes of ice than by iced water.

Q3(b) 10 g of ice at 0oC absorbed 5460 J of heat to melt and change to water at 50oC.Calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of ice. [Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/Kg/oC]

Q3(c) In an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vaporisation of steam 'L' , the following measurement were taken :
Mass of calorimeter + stirrer = x Kg
Mass of water = y Kg
Initial temperature of water = t1oC
Final temperature of mixture = t2oC
(Given S.H.C. of calorimeter and water are S1 and S2 respectively)
Express 'L' in terms of the above data.

Q4(a)(i) Differentiate between "forced vibration" and "resonance".

(ii) How does frequency and amplitude affect a musical sound?

Q4(b)Two musical notes of the same pitch and loudness are played on a violin and a piano. Their waveforms are as shown in the figures .

Explain why the wave patterns are different.

Q4(c)(i)An electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 500 MHz and a wavelength 60 cm. Calculate the velocity of the wave. Name the medium through which it is travelling.

(ii) A wave has a wavelength of 0.01 Å. Name the wave.

Q5(a)What is meant by
(i)Critical angle
(ii)Total internal reflection?

Q5(b)(i)Draw a diagram to show that white light can be split up into different colors.

(ii)Draw another diagram to show how the colors can be combined to give the effect of white light.

(iii) How would you show the presence of ultra-violet and infra-red rays in the spectrum?

Q5(c) When yellow paint and blue paint are mixed we get green color. When yellow light and blue light are mixed white light is obtained. Give reasons for the observations mentioned.

Q6(a)(i) State Ohm's law.

(ii) State the factors that alter the resistance of a conductor.

Q6(b)The following circuit diagram shows three resistors 2W, 4W and RW connected to a battery of emf 2V and internal resistance 3W. A main current of 0.25 ampere flows through the circuit.
(i) What is the P.D across the 4W resistor?
(ii) Calculate the P.D across the internal resistance of the cell.
(iii) What is the P.D across the RW or the 2W resistor?
(iv) Calculate the value of R.

Q6(c) State two ways of increasing the speed of rotation of a D.C motor.

Q7(a)(i)Draw a neat labeled diagram of a hot cathode ray tube.
(ii) What is the effect on the beam particles if
1. a hotter filament is used
2. the anode voltage is increased?
(iii) Name one device in which the cathode ray tube is used.

Q7(b) State the factors that affect the rate of emission of electrons in a photoelectric cell.

Q7(c)(i)A thorium isotope 90Th223 undergoes an a-decay and changes into Radium. What is the atomic number and mass number of the radium produced?

(ii)If the radium undergoes a further disintegration and emits two b particles, represent this reaction in the form of an equation.
(iii)What is the source of energy released during the decay?

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IMP interview questions Chemistry ICSE Board Question Paper IInd

Chemistry ( I.C.S.E) Previous Year Question Paper for icse board class free download online pdf. see answers / solved sample question papers with solutions soon..

Questions 1 to 2 of Set II
Section -A
-Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
-You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
-This time is to be spent in reading the question paper
-The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answer.

-This question paper is divided into two sections.
- Section I contains one question with eight parts (a) to (h): all eight parts to be answered. Section II contains six questions, numbered 2 to 7. You are to answer four of these questions.
-The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in [].
-All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answers.

Q 1 (a) Name one element, in each case, to which the following descriptions could apply:
(i) the molten metal which gives white fumes when reacting with chlorine;
(ii) the burning metal which combines directly with nitrogen;
(iii) the metal which directly combines with sulphur on heating;
(iv) the non-metal which forms two compounds when reacting with chlorine.

Q 1 (b) Name the gas that you can obtain in the laboratory from each of the following and write the equation for the reaction taking place in each case:
(i) ammonium nitrite;
(ii) ammonium chloride;
(iii) ammonium nitrate.

Q 1(c) (i) Name the two crystalline allotropes of sulphur. For each allotrope give a sketch of the shape of its crystals.
(ii) Which sulphur allotrope is stable at room temperature ?

Q 1(d) (i) What is the mass of nitrogen in 1000 kg of Urea[CO(NH2)2] ?
(Answer correct to the nearest kg.)
(H=1;C=12;N=14;O=16)

(ii) Is it possible to change the temperature and pressure of a fixed mass of gas without changing its volume ? Explain your answer.

Q 1(e) (i) What should be the physical state of lead bromide if it is to conduct electricity?
(ii) What particles are present in pure lead bromide?
(iii) Write the equation for the reaction which take place at the electrodes during the electrolysis of lead bromide.

Q 1(f)Three test-tubes contain calcium nitrate solution , zinc nitrate solution and lead nitrate solution respectively. Each solution is divided into two portions (f) (i) and (f) (ii). Describe the effect of :
(i) adding sodium hydroxide solution to each portion in turn till it is in excess.
(ii) adding ammonium hydroxide to each portion in turn till it is in excess.

Q 1(g) State three tests by which you could identify a gas as being chlorine.

Q 1(h) Define or explain the meaning of the following terms :
(i) Molar volume;
(ii) Fixation of nitrogen;
(iii) Acid salt;
(iv) Vulcanisation;
(v) Ore.

Section -II(40 marks)
Answer any four questions
Q 2(a) (i) What is the purpose of the pH scale?
(ii) What is the pH of pure water?
(iii) A is a soluble acidic oxide; B is a soluble base. Compared to the pH of pure water, what will be the pH of :
(1) a solution of A
(2) a solution of B?

Q 2(b) Taking sodium carbonate as an example, give the meaning of the following terms:
(i) Water of crystallization;
(ii) anhydrous;
(iii) efflorescence.

Q 2(c) (i) Barium chloride solution can be used to distinguish between a sodium sulphate solution and a sodium nitrate solution. How is this done?
(ii) Write the equation for the action of heat on sodium nitrate.

SECTION - I (40 marks)
Answer all questions.

Q 3 (a)Write equations for the following reactions:
(i) burning of ammonia in oxygen;
(ii) catalytic oxidation of ammonia.

Q 3 (b)(i) What would you see in(a)(i) above?
(ii) Name the catalyst used in(a)(ii).
(iii) In the reaction referred to in (a)(ii) the catalyst glows red hot. Why?
(iv) What is the name of the industrial process which starts with the reaction referred to in (a)(ii)?

Q 3(c) (i) How soluble is ammonia in water?
(ii) Give two reasons to show that the solution of ammonia in water contains hydroxide ions.
(iii) Name a simple method you would employ to prepare ammonium salt in your laboratory.

Q 4(a)Calculate the empirical formula of the compound having 37.6 % sodium, 23.1% silicon and 39.3% oxygen. (work to two decimal places). [O=16;Na=23;Si=28]

Q 4(b)The empirical formula of a compound is C2H5. It has a vapour density of 29. Determine the relative molecular mass of the compound and hence its molecular formula.

Q 4(c) Solid ammonium dichromate (relative molecular mass = 252) decomposes according to the following equation:
(NH4)2Cr2O7® N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
(i) What volume of nitrogen, at STP will be evolved when 63g of ammonium dichromate is decomposed?
(ii) If 63g of ammonium dichromate is heated above 1000c , what will be the loss of mass? (H=1;N=14;O=16;Cr=52).

Q5(a) The following substances are put into the blast furnace when manufacturing iron : iron ore, coke, limestone and hot air.
(i) what is the name of the most common ore of iron and what is its chemical formula ?
(ii) what is the purpose of using (1) the coke (2) the limestone?
(iii) write the equation for the reduction reaction which produces iron.
(iv) Name the two substances which separate at the bottom of the blast furnace.

Q 5(b)(i) What is the main impurity present in the iron produced in the blast furnace?
(ii) By what chemical process is this impurity removed in steelmaking?
(iii) What is added to steel to make stainless steel?

Q6(a)(i) Write the equation for the laboratory preparation of the sulphur dioxide from sodium sulphite.
(ii) How is the sulphur dioxide collected?
(iii) What does the method of collection tell you about the density of sulphur dioxide?
(iv) What do you see when sulphur dioxide is bubbled through an acidified potassium dichromate solution?

Q 6(b)Write one equation in each case to show the action of sulphur dioxide?
(i) a reducing agent;
(ii) an oxidizing agent;
(iii) an acid anhydride.

Q 6(c)(i) what is the similarity in the use of sulphur dioxide and chlorine as bleaching agents?
(ii) When chlorine is involved in bleaching , what is the type of chemical reaction that changes the coloured compound to a colourless one?
(iii) What is the reason for not using chlorine to bleach wool?

Q7.(a)Outline the steps required to convert hydrogen chloride to anhydrous Iron (III) Chloride. Write the equations for the reactions which take place.

7(b)(i) What are the two steps necessary to change Lead Carbonate into Lead Chloride?
(ii) Give the name of soluble lead salt and write the equation for the action of heat on this salt.
(iii)Write the equation for the preparation of nitric acid from potassium nitrate.

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IMP interview questions Chemistry ICSE Board Solved Question Paper IIIrd

Chemistry ( I.C.S.E ) download previous question papers of icse board class xth and xii th / 10th and 12th here free online.. latest previous and recent sample solved paper with solutions / answers for all subjects..

You are on question 1 of Set I

-Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately .
-You will NOT be allowed to write during the first 15 muintes .
-This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
-The time given at the head this paper is the time allowed for writing the answer.

- This question paper is divided into two section. Section I contains One question with eight parts (a) to (h): all eight parts are to be answered. Section II contains six questions, numbered 2 to 7.
- You are to answer four of these questions.

The intented marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. All working, including rough work, Should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer 5.

SCIENCE
SECTION - I (40 - Marks)
Answer all questions.

Q 1. (a) Answer the questions below, relating your answers only to salts in the following list :
Sodium Chloride, anhydrous calcium chloride, copper sulphate - 5- water.
(i) What name is given to the water in the compound copper sulphate - 5-water?

(ii) If copper sulphate -5 - water is heated, the water is driven off leaving anhydrous copper sulphate.

(A) What is the colour of anhydrous sulphate?
(B) By what means, other than heating, could you dehydrate copper sulphate -5-water and obtain anhydrous copper sulphate?
(iii) What is deliquescence ?
(iv) Which one of the salts in the given list is deliquescent ?

Q 1(b) State what you see when :
(i) a piece of moist blue litmus paper is placed in a gas jar of chlorine.
(ii) a piece of moist red litmus paper is placed in a gas jar of ammonia .
(iii)Silver nitrate solution is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
(iv)Zinc oxide is heated.
(v) A glowing splint is introduced into a gas jar containing oxygen.
Q 1 (c) Write correctly balanced equations for the following reactions :
(i) Molten sodium and chlorine.
(ii) Nitrogen and oxygen when lightning strikes.
(iii) Iron and dilute sulphuric acid.
(iv) Decomposition of hypochlorous acid in sunlight.
(v) Action of heat on potassium nitrate.

Q 1(d) Water can be split into hydrogen and oxygen under suitable conditions.
The equation representing the change is :
2H2O(l) ---------------> 2H2(g) + O2(g).
(i) If a given experiment result in 2500 cm3 of hydrogen being produced, what value of oxygen is liberated at the same time under the same conditions of temperature and pressure?

(ii) The 2500 cm3 of hydrogen is subjected to 2 1/2 times increases in pressure (temperature remaining constant ). What volume will the hydrogen now occupy ?

(iii) Taking the volume of hydrogen calculated in (d) (ii), what change must be made in the kelvin (absolute) temprature to return the volume to 2500 cm3 (pressure remaining constant)?

Q 1 (e). The compound Na2B4O7.10H2O is commonly known as borax. When litmus is added to a solution of borax solution, it turns blue
(i) What can you say about the pH of borax solution?
(ii) Calculate the precentage of boron (B) in borax. (H = 1, B = 11, O = 16, Na = 23. Answer correct to 1 decimal place.)

Q 1 (f). (i) Sodium hydoxide solution can be used to distinguish between iron (II) sulphate solution and iron (III) sulphate solution because these solution give different coloured precipitates with sodium hydroxide solutions. Give the colour of the precipitate formed with :
(1) iron (II) sulphate solution ;
(2) iron (III) sulphate solution.

(ii) What will you see when barium chloride solution is addded to iron (II) sulphate solution?

(iii) How will the action of dilute hydrochloride acid on sodium carbonate and sodium sulphite enable you to distinguish between these two compounds?

Q 1(g). Choosing only words from the following list write down the appropriate words to fill in the blanks (i) to (v) below :
anions, anode cathode, cations, electrode, electrolyte, nickel, voltameter.

To electroplate an article with nickel requires an (i) ..............................which must be a solution containing (ii)...................... ions. The article to be plated is placed as the(iii).................................. of the cell in which the plating is carried out .The (iv)............................ of the cell is made from pure nickel. The ions which are attracted to the negative electrodes and discharged are called (v) .......................................... .

Q 1(h).The following question result to the Nitrogen Cycle.
(i) What are the soluble nitrogen compounds absorbed by the roots of plants ?
(ii) What kind of plants directly absorb nitrogen from the atmosphere ?
(iii) What term is applied to the conversion of atmosphere nitrogen to useful compounds of nitrogen?
(iv) Compounds such as ammonium nitrate. urea and super - phosphate are used to replace nitrogen and other elements loss from the soil as a result of cultivation. What is the common name given to these compounds ?
(v) What insoluble substance is used in making superphosphate?

SCIENCE
SECTION - II (40 Marks )
Answer any four questions

Q 2(a) (i) Name the oxide of sulphur which react with water to give sulphuric acid.
(ii) In the contact Process the direct reaction between the oxide of sulphur and water is avoided. In the process, what dfoes the oxide of sulphur react with instead of water and what is the name of the product?
(iii) Give the name and formula of the acid salt which can give sodium ions and sulphate ions in solution.

Q 2(b) The metal zinc is extracted from the ore zinc blende.
(i) Name the zinc compound in zinc blende.
(ii) Zinc blend when rosted in air gives off a gas which, iff allowed to escape, would constitute an atmospheric pollutant. What is this gas?
(iii) What particular polluting effect does this gas have?

Q 2 (c) Write correctly balanced equations for the reaction in dilute sulphuric acid with each of the following :
(i) Copper carbonate (ii) Lead nitrate solution (iii) Zinc hydroxide

Q 3 (a) The following reaction are carrid out :L
A : Nitrogen + metal ----------> compound X
B : X + water ----------> ammonia + another compound
C : Ammonia + metal oxide ------> metal + water + nitrogen
(i) One metal that can be be used for reaction A is magnesium.
(1) State the conditions for the reaction
(2) Write the formula of the compound X formed when nitrogen and magnesium react together. (ii) Write the correctly balanced equation for reaction B where X as the compound formed between nitrogen and magnesium.
(iii) What property of ammonia as demonstarted by reaction C?

Q 3 (b) Industrically ammonia is obtained by direct combination between nitrogen and hydrogen.
(i) Write the correctly balance equation for the direct combination of nitrogen and hydrogen?
(ii) Which of the metals - iron, platinum. copper catalyse - this direct combination?
(iii) Is the formation of ammonia promoted by the use of high pressure or low pressure?

Q 3 (c) (i) Is ammonia more dense or less dense than air?
(ii) What property of ammonia is demonstrated by the Fountain Experiment?
(iii) Write the correctly balanced equation for the reaction between ammonia and sulpuric acid.

Q 4 (a)(i) The compound A has the following percentage composition by mass : carbon 26.7%., Oxygen 71.1%; hydrogen 2.2%.Determine the empirical formula of A (Work to one decimal place) (H = 1: = 12 : O = 16)
(ii) If the relative molecular mass of A is 90, What is the molecular formula of A?
(iii) The compound A is a week acid. What is meant by this statement?

Q 4 (b) Ammonia burn in oxygen and the combustion, in the presence of a catalyst,may be represented by :
2NH3 + 21/2O2 ® 2NO + 3H2O
(i) What mass of steam is prodused when 1.5g of nitrogen monooxide is formed?
(ii) What volume of oxygen, at stp, is required to form 10 moles of products? [H = 1: N = 14 : O = 16. 1mole of gas occupies 22.4dm3 (22.4 liter) at stp].

Q 5 (a) The table below compares some properties of metals and non metals. Write down the missing statements (i) to (iv): Metal Non - Metal
(i) poor conductors of heat
Malleable (ii)
Form positive ions (iii)
(iv) Form acidic oxides

Q 5 (b) (i) Metals are generally solid at room tempreature. Name the metal which is liquid at room tempreature (say 25oC)
(ii) Which allotrope of the non - metal carbon conducts electricity?

Q 5 (c) (i) How many valence electrons are present in :
(1) Metals
(2) Non - Metals?
(ii) Name all the particles found in a solution of sodium chloride?

Q 6 (a) (i) Ethane and chlorine react together to form monochloroethane(ethyl chloride).
(1) Write down the structural formula of ethane.
(2) What type of reaction has taken place between ethane and chlorine.

Q 6 (a)(ii) The type of reaction between ethene and chlorine is different from that between ethane and chlorine.
(1) What is the type of reaction between ethene and chlorine?
(2) What fercture of the ethene structure makes such a reaction possible ?
(3) Name the product of the reaction between ethene and chlorine.

Q 6 (b) Ethane burns completely in air or oxygen to give carbon dioxide(and water vapour). With a limited supply of air/oxygen carbon monoxide is formed. The same gases are found in automobile exhaust gases. Both gases can be considered as atmospheric pollutants.
(i) Write the equation of the complete combustion of ethane.
(ii) What danger is associated with carbon monoxide.
(iii) What effect is associated with too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(iv) Burning acetylene (ethyne) in oxygen under appropriate condition produces a very hot flame. What is this hot flame used for?

Q 7(a) Solution P has a pH of 13,solution Q has a pH of 6 and solution R has a pH of 2.
(i) Which solution will liberate ammonia from ammonium sulphate on heating?
(ii) Which solution is a strong acid?
(iii) Which solution contains solute molecules as well as ions?

Q 7(b) From the list of substances given below ,choose the pair required to prepare the salts (i) to (iii) in the laboratory and write down the relevant equations .

The substance are :
chlorine , iron, lead, lead nitrate solution, sodium nitrate solution, iron (III) carbonate, lead carbonate, iron (III) hydroxide, sodium hydroxide solution and dilute hydrochloric acid.

The salts are :
(i) sodium chloride.
(ii) lead chloride.
(iii) anhydrous iron (III) chloride.

Q 7(c) All ammonium salts are decomposed on heating. What other property do ammonium salts have in common?

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IMP interview questions ICSE Board Previous years Question Papers

ICSE Board Chemistry Question Papers:
Chemistry ICSE Board Solved Question Paper IIIrd
Chemistry ICSE Board Question Paper IInd
Download 2007 Chemistry ICSE Board Question Paper Ist

ICSE Board Physics Question Papers:
Physics ICSE Board Question Paper 3
Physics ICSE Board Previous Question Paper - 2
Physics ICSE Board 2007 Question Paper

ICSE Board Biology Question Papers:
Biology ICSE Board Question Paper 2
Biology ICSE Board Question Paper

ICSE Board Economics Question Papers:
Economics ICSE Board Question Paper 1

ICSE Board History Civics and Geography Question Papers:
History Civics Geography ICSE 2007 question paper ...
History civics geography 2007 ICSE Board question ...


Also See:
CBSE BOARD CLASS X QUESTION PAPERS 2007
CBSE BOARD CLASS X QUESTION PAPERS 2008
CBSE BOARD CLASS XII QUESTION PAPERS 2007
CBSE BOARD CLASS XII QUESTION PAPERS 2008


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